Quote:
Originally Posted by Humble Bricklayer
Aaron,
My point was that despite the fact that there are 613 different injunctions contained in the LAW, yet there is only ONE REQUIREMENT, really.
That SINGLE REQUIREMENT is that there should not occur a single transgression of even one of those injunctions -even for a second. That is the LAW. Like it or not.
"Cursed is everyone that continueth not in all things that are written in the book of the law to do them" (Deuteronomy 27:26).
The verse above is the one unique standard of the LAW:
'Continue...in...all...things'....
'Continue...in.. all... things'
And it is an IMPOSSIBLE standard to keep. Why? Because absolutely no one can ever, or has ever, continued in all things that are written in the LAW to do them.
The whole world, both Jew and Gentile, lay under this curse prior to that (the Jews, by choice; the Gentiles, by default).
But the curse was laid, instead, on Christ.
That was the point I was making.
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Hi HB,
I was looking at Romans 8:3-4, and in my NIV, the verses there are rendered as:
"... For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering. And so he condemned sin in sinful man, in order that the RIGHTEOUS REQUIREMENTS of the law might be fully met in us (or fulfilled)".
Notice the words that are capitalized: the 'righteous requirements', as of many requirements. One may be forgiven for thinking that what Paul refers to here are the 613 requirements written and commanded in the Torah (in a way, yes) And that he is showing how Jesus kept all of them and how he is now helping us to keep them through the power of the Holy Spirit.
This kind of flawed interpretation owes its existence to a loose translation of one of the words in the verse. The translation (above) is not an absolutely faithful one. And because it is a mistranslation, that in turn, has also led to the verse being misinterpreted.
When you take a look at other Bible versions, verse 4 is translated with a subtle difference, with the kind of nuance that would escape the scrutiny of a casual reader of the Bible. The difference is the singular and plural form of the word rendered as 'requirements'.
Have a look at these alternative renderings below:
"... that the righteousness of the Law might be fulfilled in us..." (KJV)
"... that the righteous requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us..." (RecV)
"... that the ordinance of the Law might be fulfilled in us..."
(this last translation was the one favored by Watchman Nee; and he drew his quote from it in chapter 10 of his book, 'The Normal Christian Life').
See the difference?
I know from experience that the NIV often takes liberties in its translations that it might fit in more snugly with a an increasingly modern approach to the Bible, and so I'm inclined to dismiss it in favor of even the Recovery Version. At least the LC tried to remain faithful to the original languages.
So...
The original Greek form of the word translated as 'requirements' in the NIV is actually singular. It is not pluralized.
This lends credence to your eisegesis that the Law, as far as fulfilling it is concerned, has only ONE requirement...and Romans 8 tells us that that unique requirement was met in full on the cross, through Jesus Christ.
Isn't it amazing when the Bible agrees with the Bible?
Ciao.