Quote:
Originally Posted by OBW
Question: Has there not been apostasy since the very writings that now comprise the NT?
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The question here is wrong. In 2 Thessalonians, while answering questions concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus, the Apostle Paul says The Advent will not occur until THE APOSTASY and THE REVELATION of the man of sin. It’s not a matter of whether or not an apostasy has ever occurred. According to the Book of Acts, Paul was accused of Apostasy from Moses. There is no other mention of “apostasy” in the Bible.
So why would Paul prophesy so specifically of THE coming apostasy if it was not a recognizable event for the church of God? This event is coupled with THE revelation of the Man of Lawlessness, aka the Revelation Beast, aka the coming Antichrist. Obviously Paul considered this to be also a recognizable event. Does anyone think these 2 events might somehow be related?
*The Apostasy* does seem to be quite different from *The Revival* which most Christians are looking forward to. If *The Rapture* occurs long before the prophesied events in the book of Revelation, which many are so sure will happen, then WHY would Paul warn us? Why mention “The Apostasy” to the Thessalonians if it would be such a commonplace event throughout church history?