[Raptor]

Originally Posted by UntoHim

The audience that the Lord Jesus was addressing in these later chapters of Matthew was clearly the Jews, and specifically the "Scribes and Pharisees".

Have you not read all the verses? This is another naysayer favorite, that is, "no, it does not apply to me,"no, that was written to Jews only." It makes no sense. Since you did not quote any verses, I will do it for you. All you need to do is go to verse 1 and 2 of chapter 24 where it clearly says Jesus was talking to His disciples. In verse 3 it specifically says the disciples asked Him privately. And His answer to the disciples is in verses 4 to 51, which includes the portion I referenced.

So no, Jesus was not addressing the Scribes and Pharisees (S&P) and they are not the audience specifically. Absoultely not. He was talking to His disciples. Do you see how easy it is if you actually read the Word? Do you need more proof? Ok, here: Just one chapter before, Jesus slams the S&P with eight "woes," calling them "hyprocrites" and "blind guides." Do you really think that suddenly now in chapter 24 the audience is the S&P and Jesus is now addressing them as His disciples? Nonsense. Is Jesus warning the S&P in verse 4 so they won´t be deceived at the second coming? They were already deceived, they did not even recognize Jesus in His first coming. Are the S&P according to verse 9 the ones persecuted and killed and hated because of the name of Jesus? No, that´s the disciples. Actually the S&P are the ones that perescuted, hated and killed the Lord Jesus and some of the disciples. Just read the Word, please, read the context, use common sense, use supporting passages.

So you also say the audience is the Jews. The audience is the disciples and a valid question is which disciples, only the 12? Maybe, because they asked Him privately, which could mean only the 12. Yet the paralell portion in Mark 13:3 specifically says that, "Peter, James, John, and Andrew" asked Him privately. Were they Jews? Yes, even all 12 were Jews, so yeah they are Jews. So what? The main point here is that they are BELIEVERS. They are disciples of Jesus, believers in Jesus; it does not matter if they are Jews or not.

The only portions that may refer more specifically to Jews at that time are, "not one stone here will be left on another; OR "let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains," "Pray that your flight will not occur in the winter or on the Sabbath", "But for the sake of the elect, those days will be cut short", and all the tribes of the earth will mourn." Context, context, context.

So the Lord is addressing disciples, believers, the only remaining question is: all believers through the church age or only those there with Him? Only 1st century believers? Only Jewish believers? The context obviously shows the audience is all believers until the end of the age. The Lord starts to conclude His entire answer in verse 42 and says "Therefore keep watch, because you do not know the day on which your Lord will come." You really think that is just for Jews? Non-jewish believers do not need to watch? Unbelieving Jews do not have Jesus as their Lord and will not watch for His coming back. And believing Jews are just believers, they are members of the Body, where there is no Jew and no Greek. They are BELIEVERS.

If you say the wicked servant only applies to Jews, then what happens to a non-jewish, evil believer when he dismisses the Lord´s coming, abuses the brothers, and eats and drinks with drunkards? When the Lord comes back, what happens to him? "Well done, good and faithful servant, enter the joy of your Lord? Nothing? No consequences? Why? Based on what? The Lord forgives non-jewish believers more than jewish ones?

Read the corresponding, parallel portions in Mark 13 and Luke 12 & 21. Are those portions also only addressed to Jews?, only to S&P? Jesus concludes this same section in Mark 13:37 saying, "And what I say to you, I SAY TO EVERYONE: KEEP WATCH!”