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Old 10-18-2022, 02:12 PM   #10
Sons to Glory!
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Location: Scottsdale, AZ
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Default Re: Infallibiliy of the Bible?

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Originally Posted by Ohio View Post
Let me say more. If by "works" James means circumcision, kosher, Sabbath, Passover, holidays, etc., then I would say "no, we are NOT justified by works." See Acts 14-15. But, if by "works" James means loving others, preaching the Gospel, hospitality, assembling, etc., then I would agree. If there is none of this in our lives, then you can be sure that our faith is dead. Can we even claim to be justified?
Exactly! I view James as the first of the NT books to be written, therefore he had nothing prior written regarding the new Spirit way of the new covenant to go on. So it's like a transition book from the old to the new in many ways.
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Last edited by Sons to Glory!; 10-18-2022 at 04:14 PM.
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