Quote:
Originally Posted by Timotheist
Nell, I respect your bravery, and willingness to engage, in opening this thread. I will try to bloviate too much, but I will try to summarize my experience in this matter.
As part of the LR, and before and after, it was pushed upon me the infallibility doctrine. Many churches, including the LR, include a statement about infallibility as the NUMBER ONE item of faith. As if we must agree on that before we go on to the next statements.
As a youth, when I was exposed to 'alternate views', I felt duty-bound to defend belief #1. It was a fine and glorious day when I realized that I could question the text without losing my faith.
In fact, my faith has strengthened, not lessened, after this decision.
So for what makes UntoHim extremely nervous is exactly what saved me from walking away.
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I don't really mean to set out to prove the Bible is fallible. I can't say that I believe that. But, I will just look for a simple (scriptural) explanation of the apparent contradiction between the verse in James' book vs. the verses in Paul's books.
I'm assuredly not the first to come across these two verses...side by side...and scratched my head? Am I? Surely the "church fathers" have noticed an apparent contradiction.
I'll pick just one of Paul's verses: Romans 3:28 and James' showstopper.
Romans 3:28 Therefore we conclude that
a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. (works)
James 2:24 Ye see then how that
by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
We certainly don't question that God Himself, as the Holy Spirit, is indeed infallible.
Nell