TLFisher
10-29-2011, 06:46 PM
Therefore, to one who knows the right thing to do and does not do it, to him it is sin. (NASB)
The RcV footnote says, "A concluding word to all the charges in the preceeding verses. It says that if the recepients of this Epistle are helped by James's writing and yet will not do as he wrote, to them it is sin,"
How can the footnote writer say such a thing? James is no different from other books of the Bible. All scripture is God-breathed. The footnote writer is also making implications to verses corresponding to James 4:17.
Luke 12:47
And that slave who knew his master's will and did not get ready or act in accord with his will, will receive many lashes,
2 Peter 2:21
For it would be better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn away from the holy commandment handed on to them.
The RcV footnote says, "A concluding word to all the charges in the preceeding verses. It says that if the recepients of this Epistle are helped by James's writing and yet will not do as he wrote, to them it is sin,"
How can the footnote writer say such a thing? James is no different from other books of the Bible. All scripture is God-breathed. The footnote writer is also making implications to verses corresponding to James 4:17.
Luke 12:47
And that slave who knew his master's will and did not get ready or act in accord with his will, will receive many lashes,
2 Peter 2:21
For it would be better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn away from the holy commandment handed on to them.